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> >>I don’t see how. Hairless men <I>by definition</I> >>have no hair. What are hairless men? People who have >>no hair. Thus, the fact that hairless men have no >>hair is true by definition. The conclusion naturally >>flows from the essence of the terms involved. “If a >>man has no hair, then that man has no hair.” This is >>an objective truth. It cannot possibly be false. The >>consequent logically must follow from the antecedent. > > >For the record, I agree. This statement is true by >definition, and therefore, at least in my >understanding, axiomatic. Mathematical expressions >are also true by definition. Jumping from these types >of axioms to other ideas such as immorality is a huge >leap, I think, but I wanted to be sure you knew where >I stood on these more fundamental points. > >Ben

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