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>Women in Britain did not qualify for the vote until >the year 1928, following all the reforms and the >extensions of the franchise. After 1928, Britain was a >complete democracy as far as the franchise was >concerned. How did women qualify for the vote? > >1) Following WW1, where, in 1918, all men were >franchised, the men used the strong argument that; if >they were to go to war for their country, why should >they not qualify for the vote? WOMEN had no such >argument, although they used a similar message to >great effect: While the men had been out fighting in >the war, the women had been doing the jobs previously >held by the now absent men. This was essential in >maintaining the stability of the British economy >throughout the duration of the war. The women then >armed themselves with the argument that: If women >could successfully do jobs of men, then they were >equals. Equality between the sexes demanded, >essentially, equal rights. Although this was not >immediately achieved (to be fair, it WAS the 1920s), >the strong arguments of the country-running female >population did encourage a political climate >favourable to the enfranchisement of women. > >2) The suffragists and the suffragettes were female >political pressure groups (suffragists - >non-aggressive, suffragettes-aggressive) which put >great pressure on the government to take notice of the >arguments being put forward by the public as well as >the groups themselves. The suffragettes were only too >keen to put the boot in and begin physical >demonstrations which amassed several tens of thousands >of people. The suffragists demonstrated as well, >although theirs was more of a political nature.

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