| Subject: Re: Jesus is God |
Author:
Hez
|
[
Next Thread |
Previous Thread |
Next Message |
Previous Message
]
Date Posted: 11:06:44 12/16/09 Wed
In reply to:
Pahu
's message, "Jesus is God" on 13:43:30 10/06/06 Fri
Trinity became a basic dogma of Christianity when it was mandated by the council of Niacea in 325CE.This is when the concept became doctrine of the church,although it was first thought up almost one hundred years before.For the first few hundred years after his death,Jesus had no designation as G-d,son of the trinity.A council of men said this is the truth,not Jesus.
If G-d is all-powerful,why wouldn't He and only He,be the One that "saves"eternally?Why would G-d need another entity to do His work,when He can do everything?He needs no other and the bible states there is no other,Deut4:39.
There is the concept of Jesus being the only begotton son of G-d,1John4:9,"G-d sent His only begotton son...".Scripture shows that Jesus is not the only begotton son of G-d.Read these;---Ex4:22,"Thus saith the L-rd,Israel is my son,even my firstborn."Hosea1:10,"Ye(children of Israel are the sons of the living G-d.",and the favorite of christian theologists,Psalms2:7,"The L-rd has said to me,Thou art my son,this day I have begotton you."This Psalm is about David,king of Israel.The preceding verse says,"I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion.Jesus was not a king in Jerusalem.Another reference to this is Psalms89:20,26-27,which mentions David by name and givesproof that Psalm 2 is about David.
In John10:30,I and the Father are one."it was so taken for granted that he was not claiming to be G-d that he didn't bother refuting blasphemy here,but instead refutes the charge of blasphemy of calling himself the son of G-d by quoting Psalm82:6,"Ye are gods;and all of you are children of the most High."Jesus is saying he is a son of G-d in this manner and does not blaspheme.In Mark12;29,Jesus says the Shema,a total affirmation of G-d's Oneness,refering to a sovereign G-d,not a trinity that includes himself.
John 10:38 says the Father is in me and I am in the Father.This does not imply that G-d and Jesus are in a triune godhead.Read John17:23,"I in them and thou in me,that they be made one.",John14:20,I am in my Father and ye(followers)in me and I in You,John 17:21,"That they all be as one;as thou,Father,are in me,and I in thee..",1 John4:12,"If we love one another,G-d dwells in us and His love perfected in us."Matt 10:40,He that recieveth you(disciples),recieveth me,and recieveth He who sent me."Notice that in me is replaced by recieveth me.To take this literally in the christian concept that John 10;30 is,then G-d would be a fifteen in one G-d.Notice that also the Holy Spirit is totally ignored in these verses?The Holy Spirit is ommited because these verses have nothing to do with a triune Deity.
1Cor15:28,(Paul)"And when all things are subdued to him,then the son also himself be subject to He that put all things under him,that G-d will be all in all."Jesus is a servant and subject of G-d.How could he be part of a trinity which is equally powerful and eternal?
1Tim2:5,For there is One G-d,and one mediator between G-d and men,the man Jesus Christ."This rather wipes out the concept that Jesus is G-d.He is termed the mediator between G-d and mankind.Whether he is the mediator or not is not the concern here,that is a christian topic.Jesus is clearly shown not to be G-d since it clearly shows that he is the mediator.The final thing here is he is called Jesus the man.Although christian dogma is that he is man and G-d,it says no such thing in this verse.He says only man.
Rev1:17-18,.."I am the first and the last:I am he that lived and was dead and behold,I am alive for evermore..."Jesus is not saying he is "the first and the last"G-d of Isaiah44:6.He is not saying he is G-d;he is talking about his supposed resurection.He being the first and the last brought into everlasting life by G-d in this manner.The christian concept of his "resurection"is not what I'm addressing and trinity is not what this verse is adressing either.
1John5:7,"...the Father,the son and the Holy Spirit."It is recognised by authorities not to be in the original text and the catholic church,in thier Jerusalem bible,states that this is an added passage from the 6th century.
John12:49,For I have not spoken of myself,but His that sent me,he gave me a commandment,what I should say and what I should speak."Jesus is obviously subject to G-d as we all are.
Mark15:34(Matt27:46),"And at the 9th hour Jesus cried out,"My G-d,my G-d,why have you forsaken me?"Can G-d fosake himself?This verse is one that clearly shows that Jesus had G-d and was not G-d.Jesus' G-d was the G-d of the Jews,the one G-d.
Look at the absurd ideas created when Jesus is considered G-d:
1)G-d sends G-d away from Himself
[
Next Thread |
Previous Thread |
Next Message |
Previous Message
]
| |
Feedback: 