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|Subject: How did you come to that translation...?|
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Date Posted: 10:46:12 09/09/08 Tue
I have a question concerning a translation of Gen 11:6 I found in your article:
... here is the translation that I mean, quoted from that article:
"Gen 11:6 And the LORD said, Behold, the people is one, and they have
all one language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do.
Another translation could be, "Behold, the people are united and have a
united language and are weakened and made sick to accomplish this.""
The alternate translation you give here is very interesting in my opinion, but I wonder how you got that translation.
I have to say, that I myself, am not able to translate the hebrew language in any way. I searched the internet but I couldn't find anyone else who translates that passage that way. ( I used different bible translations, looked into an interlinear bible etc., but that didnt help me much)
Why I find your version of that passage interesting? Well, after reading your alternate translation, I wondered if the last part of Isaiah 14:12 "How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!" could be a reference to Gen 11:6.
Do you think this is linguistically possible?
Thank you for your help.
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