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Date Posted: 20:04:10 01/24/08 Thu
Author: Caitlin
Subject: Imitation and Modern Literature

Alright. With all the discussion about applying Mimetic Theory to ancient literature, my mind wandered over to the thought of applying Mimetic Theory to more modern literature. I ask myself the question: Does Mimetic Theory apply to Modern Literature in the same way that we have been applying it to ancient literature?

Personally, I think that modern literature has lost touch with this theory. Literature in the 20th and 21st century might vaguely hit upon this theory, but it seems to me that authors do not consciously think about incorporating Mimetic Theory into their works. I suppose this plays along with Girard's commentary on Romantic works versus Novels.

Would this mean then that we have a misconception of the word "novel" today? The dictionary defines novel as "a fictitious prose narrative of considerable length and complexity, portraying characters and usually presenting a sequential organization of action and scenes." Girard uses "the term novelistic for the works which reveal [the presence of a mediator]" (Triangular Desire, 17). According to Girard, what we commonly consider a novel would in his terms be a Romance, as most modern books does not consciously portray a mediator.

I found this an interesting point to consider. Terms are constantly changing and I wonder with which definition I should side. Girard or modern culture?

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