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Subject: and oh yeah


Author:
damoclese
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Date Posted: 04/ 8/04 10:51am
In reply to: Wade A. Tisthammer 's message, "Really?" on 04/ 8/04 10:07am

>
>There is logic. Let f(x) = x for when the years add
>on.
>
>lim  [ x ] = No Limit
>x > ∞
>
>Which means it doesn't approach any finite number. 1
>years, 2 years, 3, 4... goes on without limit.

You can define the problem however you wish. That's my point.

Let x equal the amount of years gone by starting with zero and allowing the rest of the years to climb infinitely decimally. In other words, any particular year that has gone by can all be represented by a corresponding finite decimal value of x. Year 1 = .0000345 and so on.


f(x) = x

Lim of x = 1
x < 1.

Why should we do it this way? Why shouldn't we? Now as the years go by, they approach the limit of 1. So the passage of time is infinite, but the answer is finite.

Make sure you confer my previous post as to my future intentions.

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Oh yeah! Kool Aid for everyone!Wade A. Tisthammer04/11/04 9:48pm


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