Girard Yeilds? -- Mimetic Theory and Literary Study

[ Show ]

Support VoyForums

[ Shrink ]

VoyForums Announcement: Programming and providing support for this service has been a labor of love since 1997. We are one of the few services online who values our users' privacy, and have never sold your information. We have even fought hard to defend your privacy in legal cases; however, we've done it with almost no financial support -- paying out of pocket to continue providing the service. Due to the issues imposed on us by advertisers, we also stopped hosting most ads on the forums many years ago. We hope you appreciate our efforts.

Show your support by donating any amount. (Note: We are still technically a for-profit company, so your contribution is not tax-deductible.) PayPal Acct: Feedback:

Donate to VoyForums (PayPal):

[ Login ] [ Contact Forum Admin ] [ Main index ] [ Post a new message ] [ Search | Check update time | Archives: [1], 2 ]

[ Next Thread | Previous Thread | Next Message | Previous Message ]

Date Posted: 18:22:06 03/21/08 Fri
Author: Erin Risch
Subject: Girard Yeilds?

My formal theology isn't very good, so perhaps someone else can answer my question.

On p. 280 of the intervew Dr. Jackson gave us, Girard says, "I had avoided the word 'scapegoat' for Jesus, but now I agree with Raymund Schwager that he is a scapegoat for all--except now in reverse fashion, for theologyically considered the initative comes from God rather than simply from the human beings with their scapegoat mechanism." (emphasis mine)

How is this different from the doctrine of Anselm's satisfaction? Girard makes it sound like God did demand Jesus's death after all. The only possibility I can imagine is that, when Girard says "God," he is referring to the divinity in Christ, and therefore Christ's self-sacrifice. Is that what's going on here?

[ Next Thread | Previous Thread | Next Message | Previous Message ]