Chaucer's Franklins Tale -- Mimetic Theory and Literary Study

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Date Posted: 20:54:10 03/23/08 Sun
Author: JPJ II
Subject: Chaucer's Franklins Tale

I was reading the Franklin's tale, and I came accross an interesting little paradox. At the end of the tale, a squire gives up the opportunity to sleep with a knights wife when the knight gives her freely to the squire without anger. The squire's desire leaves him, he has pity for the women (as the knight did) and lets her go back to her husband. Now, is the squire appropriating the pity and gentile heartedness of the knight (as good squires are always wont to do) or has he simply lost all desire for the woman once his model, the knight, appears to have also lost his desire for her. OR (secret option C) is it a double appropriation? If so, would such a double appropriation make sense?

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