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Saturday, May 04, 07:50:47pmLogin ] [ Main index ] [ Post a new message ] [ Search | Check update time | Archives: 12345[6]78910 ]
Subject: Misunderstanding.


Author:
Wade A. Tisthammer
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Date Posted: 04/28/04 3:13pm
In reply to: Damoclese 's message, "God violates ex nihilo" on 04/ 1/04 11:42am

I was hesitant to respond to this as I feared it would only lead to more misconsturals, but I’ll try anyway.

It sounds like you're referring to ex nihilo nihil fit, and if so you've simply misapplied it. From nothing, nothing comes. This is to be understood literally. God creating the universe ex nihilo is then not a violation of ex nihilo nihil fit because the universe didn't literally come from nothing and wasn't uncaused; it came from God. (The notion of God creating the univese ex nihilo then is probably not the best way to describe it, but instead creation ex Deo.) A correct example of a violation of ex nihilo nihil fit would be the universe beginning to exist and literally coming from nothing, with no cause.

One could still criticize this belief of creation ex Deo on other grounds, perhaps by claiming it is not metaphysically possible for an outside agency to create a universe merely via the agency itself (i.e. the Creator created the universe out of nothing but his own power, self, etc.) but that would be a different objection against the belief. The belief itself is not a real violation of ex nihilo nihil fit (since the universe does not begin to exist with nothing to cause it, rather a Creator causes the universe to exist) regardless of what other flaws it may have.


>Modern science actually supports the idea that
>something can come from nothing. (nothing being
>defined as the lowest possible energy state).

If you redefine "nothing" to mean "a fluctuating sea of energy" (and that's what a vacuum is, among other things) then yes modern science supports the idea of something coming from nothing. But clearly this is not an example of a true violation of ex nihilo nihil fit because "nothing" was used in a very different sense then what is meant in the Latin phrase. When we use the word "nothing" in its more classic dictionary definition, the Latin phrase holds true.

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understandingDamoclese04/28/04 7:00pm


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