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Date Posted: 03:47:17 09/30/07 Sun
Author: maddiej
Subject: Open to interpretation, of course--but given the speech patterns of the time, I *think* that by "adequate husband," John merely means that he's sure he can perform sexually with her (and thus give her children), and isn't really saying anything about the emotional nature of their relationship.
In reply to: pamelalass 's message, "I always thought John's acknowledgement that he was "adequate" as a husband revealed that he knew he was not a good husband for any woman, and had regret for never being able to be more than "adequate." At a time when wives could be treated as property by their husbands, and romantic love was not necessarily a requirement for marriage among the gentry, one could argue that he was indeed adequate (he was kind, he respects women, he did not prevent her from acting independently when she chose not to go to Jamaica), but certainly nothing more, and certainly by marrying him Isobel gave up her chance for a marriage of true lovers and equal partners. And I think he knows/knew that, which is why he would never make a self-serving claim to have been a "good" husband." on 15:29:20 09/29/07 Sat


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