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Sun, May 17 2026, 22:59:16Login ] [ Contact Forum Admin ] [ Main index ] [ Post a new message ] [ Search | Check update time | Archives: 12[3] ]
Subject: Re: Baptism


Author:
Robert Wilson
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Date Posted: Tue, Sep 24 2002, 21:37:20
In reply to: E. Popp 's message, "Baptism" on Tue, Jun 11 2002, 9:09:36

I equate baptism in the Holy Spirit with baptism by water. The early church, Tertullian being a good example, believed that when we are baptized in water, we receive the Holy Spirit. There's lots of documentation for the association of the 2 things (receiving the Spirit and being water baptized) in the early church, most notably the practice of charismation at baptism. So when it says, "So-and-so was baptized in the Holy Spirit and spoke in other tongues and prophesied," I take it to mean, "So-and-so was water baptized, which we all know means he received the Holy Spirit, and he -continually- (look at the verb tenses here) spoke in other tongues and prophesied/preached, meaning he continually proclaimed the gospel in his own native tongue or dialect as he lived his life after baptism."

Note that on the issue of "speaking in tongues," the only problems arise in Corinth. At Corinth, where lots of people who spoke different dialects of Aramaic, Latin, and other languages came together to trade, they evidently had trouble with people using various dialects in church worship without taking regard for their translation into the lingua franca of the day (Greek, thanks to Alexander the Great) so that everyone could understand what was going on. Incidentally, the earliest liturgies of the church are all in Greek! Looks like somebody listened to Paul! But we read that stuff today and think, "Oh, I need to speak in some unknown tongue if I'm really baptized in the Spirit." But is that what the Bible says? When the writer of Acts says of a convert, "he spoke in OTHER tongues," why do we ASSUME he means that the convert spoke in a tongue "other" than the CONVERT'S own? Isn't it more likely that the writer is saying that the convert spoke a tongue "other" than that of the WRITER? Take care, all ye Pentecostals! LOL. There is plenty of room for ecstatic utterances in the New Testament, as well as the Old, though. If anybody's curious I'll tell you where I think they fit.

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Replies:
[> Subject: Onequickquestion


Author:
Raphael
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Date Posted: Fri, Nov 08 2002, 14:33:54

Quick question : if baptism is essential for salvation, then why didn't Jesus baptize anyone?
[> [> Subject: Re: Onequickquestion


Author:
B. Bellrook
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Date Posted: Sat, Jul 24 2004, 9:17:08

I know that you already know that Jesus was baptized. The opening of the sky and the voice from above, "This is my son..." What's funny is that you never hear of Jesus doing any baptizing! Of course, asking why he never did is like asking why he didn't just end world poverty and hunger while he was there, or why he agreed to turn water into wine for a wedding. He was a man acting on his own free will at those times. As to why he didn't baptize anyone...he did. According to modern Christian theology in nearly every denomination, his dying on the cross allows for "baptism through blood", or the salvation of a soul. Water? Who cares?
[> [> [> Subject: Re: Onequickquestion


Author:
E. Popp
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Date Posted: Mon, Jul 26 2004, 14:57:15

B,

If I may ask, where does scripture indicate "baptism through blood?" I am only familiar with baptism by water (administered by John the Baptist and Apostles) and a baptism by the Holy Spirit (i.e. Mark 1:8, Acts 1:4,5).

E. Popp


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